chuckd
Puritan Board Junior
This question isn't regarding anyone particular or close to me, as this topic typically is, I'm just trying to understand the teaching.
Matt. 19:8-9 He said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.”
Matthew Henry comments:
He further explains that Christ now forbids divorce due to hardness of hearts because we are under a dispensation of love:
To me, Moses made the accommodation for divorce due to a hard heart because we don't live in a perfect world. Obviously the 1st century Jews were abusing it, but how is it any different today?
In a perfect world, husbands would not "beat, abuse, and perhaps murder" their wives, but they do. I don't follow Matthew Henry's logic that Christians are now under a dispensation of love. Because Jesus makes an accommodation for divorce due to adultery - that's not very Christian. Why not continue the accommodation for hatred like Moses did?
Matt. 19:8-9 He said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.”
Matthew Henry comments:
Moses complained of the people of Israel in his time, that their hearts were hardened (Deut. 9:6; 31:27), hardened against God; this is here meant of their being hardened against their relations; they were generally violent and outrageous, which way soever they took, both in their appetites and in their passions; and therefore if they had not been allowed to put away their wives, when they had conceived a dislike of them, they would have used them cruelly, would have beaten and abused them, and perhaps have murdered them. Note, There is not a greater piece of hard-heartedness in the world, than for a man to be harsh and severe with his own wife. The Jews, it seems, were infamous for this, and therefore were allowed to put them away; better divorce them than do worse, than that the altar of the Lord should be covered with tears, Mal. 2:13. A little compliance, to humour a madman, or a man in a frenzy, may prevent a greater mischief. Positive laws may be dispensed with for the preservation of the law of nature, for God will have mercy and not sacrifice; but then those are hard-hearted wretches, who have made it necessary; and none can wish to have the liberty of divorce, without virtually owning the hardness of their hearts.
He further explains that Christ now forbids divorce due to hardness of hearts because we are under a dispensation of love:
The law of Moses allowing divorce for the hardness of men’s hearts, and the law of Christ forbidding it, intimate, that Christians being under a dispensation of love and liberty, tenderness of heart may justly be expected among them, that they will not be hard-hearted, like Jews, for God has called us to peace. There will be no occasion for divorces, if we forbear one another, and forgive one another, in love, as those that are, and hope to be, forgiven, and have found God not forward to put us away, Isa. 50:1. No need of divorces, if husbands love their wives, and wives be obedient to their husbands, and they live together as heirs of the grace of life: and these are the laws of Christ, such as we find not in all the law of Moses.
To me, Moses made the accommodation for divorce due to a hard heart because we don't live in a perfect world. Obviously the 1st century Jews were abusing it, but how is it any different today?
In a perfect world, husbands would not "beat, abuse, and perhaps murder" their wives, but they do. I don't follow Matthew Henry's logic that Christians are now under a dispensation of love. Because Jesus makes an accommodation for divorce due to adultery - that's not very Christian. Why not continue the accommodation for hatred like Moses did?