Puritan Board Junior
I need a little help understanding the role the OT covenants play in OT salvation. At first glance, it would make sense that the only people who could be saved were those within God's covenants with Moses, Israel, etc., and then Ephesians 3 tells us that after the cross Gentiles could be saved through the grace of God. But then we see situations like those with Jonah or Ruth, for example, when Gentiles were under God's grace. It seems clear to me that God saves even those who were outside his covenants, but if that is the case, then what were the real purposes of the covenants then? (Meaning, I always thought one of the purposes of His covenants was to display his divine election) . If Gentiles could already be saved through the grace of God just like the Jews, then why does Paul treat the topic like such a 'mystery' in Ephesians 3? Could someone please help me understand this?