Guys, My intent isn't to start an argument so I'm asking only Presbyterians to answer for this. Wanting to know the historic position here. Reading Calvin, I think he basically says this is understood comparatively; IE, compared with OT Israel, in which at times very few were actually saved, in the new covenant dispensation there will be an overwhelmingly greater figure of those who truly know God. *Does that sound about right? Are there other/alternate answers we give as Presbyterians? *Would one helpful way to see that "all" is comparative be to look back to verse 30, where Jeremiah, also in the context of speaking of the NEW covenant, recognizes that some in the new covenant visible church still won't really know the Lord? *Does anyone historically take this is actually referring primarily to ETHNIC Israel? Very interesting parallel to Romans 11 language, where "all" (ethnic Israel) will be saved.