Explain why Greek is different?

Discussion in 'Languages' started by NaphtaliPress, Feb 2, 2019.

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  1. NaphtaliPress

    NaphtaliPress Administrator Staff Member

    This work from 1646 has the Greek as pictured. Is there a reason the first is not διδακτικόν? I don't know the grammar so simply sight type; is this a leave as is or should it be corrected in braces following? On the second I have no clue, as there are several more letters. It looks as if they transposed the ending of the previous on to ἐλέγχειν. The tall letter is an elongated old style tau τ. There are three editions of this and it was the same in all three. All help much appreciated. Slowly updating Jus Divinum Regiminis Ecclesiastici by the London Provincial Assembly (1646; 1646; 1654).
  2. greenbaggins

    greenbaggins Administrator Staff Member

    Chris, what the author is doing is changing the case to suit the English grammar. So, in the English, the Greek word functions as a predicate nominative in the plural, which would be the nominative plural "didaktikoi." In the Greek text of 1 Tim 3:2, the case is accusative singular, which is "didaktikon." It is plainly an intentional change from the accusative singular to the nominative plural in order to fit the new context of the English predicate nominative. What I see is correct according to what the author is trying to do there.
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