Puritanhead
Puritan Board Professor
I know that some Reformed people, like John Piper, for example, believe that signs and wonders and all spiritual gifts are still valid today and I'm sure everyone is familiar with the contrasting MacArthur view enunciated in Charismatic Chaos..
Anyhow, throwing aside the question of their validity for today... I'm curious how one reconciles our Lord Jesus Christ's various pronouncements about signs and wonders? Emphasis being reconciling John 4:48 with Matthew 12:40....
Can one itinerate it is immoral or sinful to be a sign-seeker, but God revealed signs and wonders nonetheless. And to those whom the signs were made manifest, hindsight was 20/20 as far as interpretating the signs but they didn't tend to fathom their meaning at first sight. Agree or disagree? Again, those who bore witness to signs and wonders eventually came to discern and fathom the meaning of the signs after the fact. My inference in Matthew 12:39 is that the only sign revealed is death, burial and resurrection. Is this off base?
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John 4:47-49 (King James Version)
King James Version (KJV)
47 When he heard that Jesus was come out of Judaea into Galilee, he went unto him, and besought him that he would come down, and heal his son: for he was at the point of death.
48 Then said Jesus unto him, Except ye see signs and wonders, ye will not believe.
49 The nobleman saith unto him, Sir, come down ere my child die.
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Matthew 12:38-40 (King James Version)
King James Version (KJV)
38 Then certain of the scribes and of the Pharisees answered, saying, Master, we would see a sign from thee.
39 But he answered and said unto them, An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas:
40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
Other verses on signs and wonders:
Jer. 16:1; Jer. 32:20-21; Dan. 4:2-3, 6:27, 12:6 ; Heb. 2:3-5
[Edited on 3-7-2005 by Puritanhead]
Anyhow, throwing aside the question of their validity for today... I'm curious how one reconciles our Lord Jesus Christ's various pronouncements about signs and wonders? Emphasis being reconciling John 4:48 with Matthew 12:40....
Can one itinerate it is immoral or sinful to be a sign-seeker, but God revealed signs and wonders nonetheless. And to those whom the signs were made manifest, hindsight was 20/20 as far as interpretating the signs but they didn't tend to fathom their meaning at first sight. Agree or disagree? Again, those who bore witness to signs and wonders eventually came to discern and fathom the meaning of the signs after the fact. My inference in Matthew 12:39 is that the only sign revealed is death, burial and resurrection. Is this off base?
------------------------------------------------
John 4:47-49 (King James Version)
King James Version (KJV)
47 When he heard that Jesus was come out of Judaea into Galilee, he went unto him, and besought him that he would come down, and heal his son: for he was at the point of death.
48 Then said Jesus unto him, Except ye see signs and wonders, ye will not believe.
49 The nobleman saith unto him, Sir, come down ere my child die.
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Matthew 12:38-40 (King James Version)
King James Version (KJV)
38 Then certain of the scribes and of the Pharisees answered, saying, Master, we would see a sign from thee.
39 But he answered and said unto them, An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas:
40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
Other verses on signs and wonders:
Jer. 16:1; Jer. 32:20-21; Dan. 4:2-3, 6:27, 12:6 ; Heb. 2:3-5
[Edited on 3-7-2005 by Puritanhead]