Ephesians 3:1-2

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baron

Puritan Board Graduate
Have question regarding these verses regarding grammar. In the KJV it has a comma after the word Gentiles, the 1599 has a period, while the newer versions ESV,NIV,and HCSB has a dash after the word Gentiles- (I can not reproduce the dash they ues in Bible text.) Does the dash have any meaning in English grammar. I also noticed it in Eph. 1:10,13.
 

Herald

Administrator
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Someone correct me if I'm wrong but I believe the dash is a pause; used for effect within a sentence. Maybe that's why some translations use a period. There may be debate among the translators as to whether the passage in question is the end of a sentence or not.
 
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