Full disclosure, I am an english-only speaking lay-person with access to a Strong’s concordance. In other words, the most dangerous kind of theologian. That is why I am reaching out here.2nd Corinthians 6:18
"And I will be a father to you, And you shall be sons and daughters to Me," Says the Lord Almighty.
There are a number of covenant verses that refer to a father and son(s) relationship with God.
2nd Samuel 7:14
I will be a father to him and he will be a son to Me...
1 Chronicles 17:13
I will be his father and he shall be My son...
...You are the sons of the living God...
My reference bible indicates that Paul may be blending the phraseology of these OT passages with Isaiah 43:6.
I will say to the north, Give up, and to the south, Do not withhold; bring my sons from afar and my daughters from the end of the earth
The Hebrew word in question here simply translates as “a son”. Its full meaning is derived from context and is often translated as children or people. In fact, many versions translate Hosea 1:10, “Children of the living God.” But Paul did not use the Greek word for “children” or “people”. He used “sons and daughters”. There is a Hebrew word for daughter and it is not included in the 2 Samuel, 1 Chronicles, or Hosea passages.
My question is this: did Paul, based on context from Isaiah, expand the literal word for sons to include daughters?
Is that an example of what is often referred to today as “gender accurate language”?
Does this parallel the argument for translating the Greek word adelphoi as “brothers and sisters”?
I realize it may sound like I am trying to build a case for gender accurate or neutral language by using Paul as an example. I can assure you I am not. This verse simply stood out to me. It probably wouldn’t have 20 years ago. However, since gender language has become such a hot topic, I was surprised!