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Username3000
Guest
I am unlearned in Covenant Theology, a novice if you will. Please suffer me to ask what is probably a basic and foundational question.
Is it accurate to say that Christ's perfect obedience to the Law of God, credited to the believer, obtains (procures, attains, etc.) for the believer the covenant promise/blessing of eternal life?
In the past, when thinking about the 'great exchange' of our guilt for His righteousness, I have only thought of His righteousness as being required for us to be right with God, but I haven't thought of it as procuring covenant blessings for us. I have thought in terms of Law and Grace, but not covenantally.
Please forgive my ignorance.
Edit: I know the 1689 touches on covenants, but obviously I did not understand what I did not understand when reading it.
Is it accurate to say that Christ's perfect obedience to the Law of God, credited to the believer, obtains (procures, attains, etc.) for the believer the covenant promise/blessing of eternal life?
In the past, when thinking about the 'great exchange' of our guilt for His righteousness, I have only thought of His righteousness as being required for us to be right with God, but I haven't thought of it as procuring covenant blessings for us. I have thought in terms of Law and Grace, but not covenantally.
Please forgive my ignorance.
Edit: I know the 1689 touches on covenants, but obviously I did not understand what I did not understand when reading it.
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