TimV
Puritanboard Botanist
OK, so I've been trying to go through the King James Only controversy systematically. Partly to help me understand the subject matter myself.
The first point was addressed here:
http://www.puritanboard.com/f63/lxx-discussion-54112/
where I think most people following the discussion are on the same page. Specifically there were Greek translations (was a Greek translation) of the Old Testament during the time of Christ, and these were widely available and read, and were familiar to Jews and early Christians. For brevity we refer to these translations as the Septuagint, or LXX for short. We all, or at least the majority of us acknowledge that we really don't know exactly how the LXX looked like or how many versions were out there, but we reject the theory held mostly by Fundamental Baptist King James Only writers that there wasn't a Greek translation of the Bible widely available during the time of Christ.
Again, for purposes of discussion, the LXX stands for any Greek translation of the Old Testament widely available during the time of Christ.
So, the next subject I would like to address is whether or not authors of the New Testament quoted the LXX in preference to the Hebrew text which they had at the time.
As before, please limit the discussion to the specific question!!
Thanks to all.
The first point was addressed here:
http://www.puritanboard.com/f63/lxx-discussion-54112/
where I think most people following the discussion are on the same page. Specifically there were Greek translations (was a Greek translation) of the Old Testament during the time of Christ, and these were widely available and read, and were familiar to Jews and early Christians. For brevity we refer to these translations as the Septuagint, or LXX for short. We all, or at least the majority of us acknowledge that we really don't know exactly how the LXX looked like or how many versions were out there, but we reject the theory held mostly by Fundamental Baptist King James Only writers that there wasn't a Greek translation of the Bible widely available during the time of Christ.
Again, for purposes of discussion, the LXX stands for any Greek translation of the Old Testament widely available during the time of Christ.
So, the next subject I would like to address is whether or not authors of the New Testament quoted the LXX in preference to the Hebrew text which they had at the time.
As before, please limit the discussion to the specific question!!
Thanks to all.