Skyler
Puritan Board Graduate
The WCF divides the Law into three portions, the moral law, the ceremonial law, and the judicial law.
The way I understand this--and correct me if I'm wrong here--is as follows:
The moral law is binding to all men universally at all times, and is unchanging because it reflects God's character.
The ceremonial law, under the Old Covenant, was given specifically to those in covenant with God(i.e. Israel) and was fulfilled in Christ(no longer binding under the New Covenant). It covers how man was to worship God.
The civil law, under the Old Covenant, was again given to the kingdom of Israel and was fulfilled in Christ. It covers how God's kingdom was to be ruled.
Question: I know there's a division between the moral law and the other laws given in the New Testament, in that the one is still binding and the other is not. But of those Old Testament laws which were fulfilled in Christ, must they all be either ceremonial or civil? What I'm getting at is, is it hypothetically possible to have a law which does not fit in the category of either ceremonial or civil, yet was fulfilled in Christ's death and is therefore no longer binding?
I realize that it's entirely possible that my categories may be off. I've been trying to listen to the sermon series Joshua provided links for, but they're so quiet I can't hear them. I've been trying to amplify them but haven't gotten that finished yet. I'm trying.
The way I understand this--and correct me if I'm wrong here--is as follows:
The moral law is binding to all men universally at all times, and is unchanging because it reflects God's character.
The ceremonial law, under the Old Covenant, was given specifically to those in covenant with God(i.e. Israel) and was fulfilled in Christ(no longer binding under the New Covenant). It covers how man was to worship God.
The civil law, under the Old Covenant, was again given to the kingdom of Israel and was fulfilled in Christ. It covers how God's kingdom was to be ruled.
Question: I know there's a division between the moral law and the other laws given in the New Testament, in that the one is still binding and the other is not. But of those Old Testament laws which were fulfilled in Christ, must they all be either ceremonial or civil? What I'm getting at is, is it hypothetically possible to have a law which does not fit in the category of either ceremonial or civil, yet was fulfilled in Christ's death and is therefore no longer binding?
I realize that it's entirely possible that my categories may be off. I've been trying to listen to the sermon series Joshua provided links for, but they're so quiet I can't hear them. I've been trying to amplify them but haven't gotten that finished yet. I'm trying.