Did Jesus violate the RPW (as understood by the Puritans)?

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Tim

Puritan Board Graduate
I recently read R.J. Gore, Jr.’s book, “Covenantal Worship: Re-examining the Puritan Regulative Principle of Worship”.

I must say that I wasn’t convinced by his thesis. As far as I can put it together, one of the major arguments went like this:

P1. The Puritan Regulative Principle of Worship states that those things in the worship of God that are not commanded in Scripture are prohibited.
P2. Jesus had the custom of attending the synagogue, yet the synagogue was not commanded as a place and time of worship.
P3. Jesus was sinless.
C. Therefore, the RPW, as stated in P1, is unscriptural.

The strength of the argument depends on P2. You would have to demonstrate that the scope of the RPW extends to the synagogue, or that the activities of the synagogue are contra-RPW. I think Gore was incomplete in how he addressed this area. I am also wondering if Gore is presupposing something incorrectly.

Thoughts?
 
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