I am engaged in writing a response essay to a very comprehensive attack on Sola Scriptura.
However, there is a point here that I cannot seem to address. Perhaps it is because it is so late?
The point is made that in 2Ti 3:16-17
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
The word All means each and every scripture individually and therefore if each and every scripture individually makes a man perfect, that says that each scripture alone and by itself is sufficient to teach reprove etc which is an absurd position.
I've been rummaging through my greek dictionaries. I've found out that this amateur theologian who alot of Catholic appologists seem to favour has gotten some of his greek wrong, however I can't seem to figure out what to do with this situation.
Any help?
However, there is a point here that I cannot seem to address. Perhaps it is because it is so late?
The point is made that in 2Ti 3:16-17
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
The word All means each and every scripture individually and therefore if each and every scripture individually makes a man perfect, that says that each scripture alone and by itself is sufficient to teach reprove etc which is an absurd position.
I've been rummaging through my greek dictionaries. I've found out that this amateur theologian who alot of Catholic appologists seem to favour has gotten some of his greek wrong, however I can't seem to figure out what to do with this situation.
Any help?