Davidius
Puritan Board Post-Graduate
I'm not sure which forum this question should go in. Please move it if need be!
Galatians 5:3 says...
One of the mistakes I often see people make when they are discussing the covenants and the sacraments is to identify circumcision with Moses instead of tracing it back to Abraham as a sign and seal of the Covenant of Grace. Some seem to think that circumcision was purely an ethnic sign for the Jews, somehow being part of the Mosaic covenant (which they see as a Covenant of Works). This was something I myself believed for a while. However, closely reading Paul's arguments in Galatians really helped me understand the continuity of the Covenant of Grace between the Old and New Testaments and helped me accept the Paedobaptist position. However, I'm somewhat confused by the verse above. Why does Paul seem to be associating circumcision with the Law and Mt. Sinai?
Galatians 5:3 says...
I testify again to every man who accepts circumcision that he is obligated to keep the whole law.
One of the mistakes I often see people make when they are discussing the covenants and the sacraments is to identify circumcision with Moses instead of tracing it back to Abraham as a sign and seal of the Covenant of Grace. Some seem to think that circumcision was purely an ethnic sign for the Jews, somehow being part of the Mosaic covenant (which they see as a Covenant of Works). This was something I myself believed for a while. However, closely reading Paul's arguments in Galatians really helped me understand the continuity of the Covenant of Grace between the Old and New Testaments and helped me accept the Paedobaptist position. However, I'm somewhat confused by the verse above. Why does Paul seem to be associating circumcision with the Law and Mt. Sinai?