Staphlobob
Puritan Board Sophomore
I know why Rome developed the (infallible) doctrine of the Immaculate Conception, with all of its silliness. But my concern: If Mary was a sinful creature (and she was), and Jesus received His human nature from her (and He did), why did He not also receive the taint of her sin? Is original sin something that comes only from the male side? Or do we simply take the Word's assertion?
The question makes me wonder again about the Immaculate Conception. Not that I believe it, but I have a better understanding of their desire to protect the sinless nature of Christ.
I'm speaking with some Muslims and although they've not yet hit on this issue, I can see they'll realize it and come around to it soon enough.
Thanks ahead of time for whatever help you can give.
The question makes me wonder again about the Immaculate Conception. Not that I believe it, but I have a better understanding of their desire to protect the sinless nature of Christ.
I'm speaking with some Muslims and although they've not yet hit on this issue, I can see they'll realize it and come around to it soon enough.
Thanks ahead of time for whatever help you can give.