Confessor
Puritan Board Senior
In Rev. Winzer's recent article in the CPJ on the Westminster Assembly's take on exclusive psalmody, he says the following:
My attention is focused on the idea that circumstances are "without any religious significance whatsoever." I agree with this, but I also do not understand how, given this definition, tunes for psalms can be considered circumstantial.
Certain tunes have a much greater propensity to stir up religious affections, when combined with the appropriate lyrical content, than others do. Just imagine the state of a congregation who sings a metrical psalm as found in a typical psalter, versus a congregation who sings a psalm with the most aesthetically monstrous rhythms and chords imaginable. Would it be appropriate to say that the tune has no religious value?
I suppose that we could also (e.g.) compare the state of a congregation meeting at 3:30 AM compared to one meeting at 10 AM. One would be more fit to worship, yet that does not seem sufficient to say that the time of worship is not circumstantial. But if this is so, then it would follow that other aesthetics, whether visual or aural, which may stir up the religious affections (perhaps, stained glass?) could also be likewise permissible, while yet remaining circumstances.
Is this correct, or have I made some equivocation on the nature of circumstances (or some other error)?
A circumstance therefore is nothing more than a means of worship without any religious significance whatsoever. It is that without which the action as an action could not be performed. It is an adjunct which incidentally accompanies the worship rather than an addition which qualitatively affect s the worship. That which edifies is not an adjunct but an addition to the worship of God (p. 7 of the PDF).
My attention is focused on the idea that circumstances are "without any religious significance whatsoever." I agree with this, but I also do not understand how, given this definition, tunes for psalms can be considered circumstantial.
Certain tunes have a much greater propensity to stir up religious affections, when combined with the appropriate lyrical content, than others do. Just imagine the state of a congregation who sings a metrical psalm as found in a typical psalter, versus a congregation who sings a psalm with the most aesthetically monstrous rhythms and chords imaginable. Would it be appropriate to say that the tune has no religious value?
I suppose that we could also (e.g.) compare the state of a congregation meeting at 3:30 AM compared to one meeting at 10 AM. One would be more fit to worship, yet that does not seem sufficient to say that the time of worship is not circumstantial. But if this is so, then it would follow that other aesthetics, whether visual or aural, which may stir up the religious affections (perhaps, stained glass?) could also be likewise permissible, while yet remaining circumstances.
Is this correct, or have I made some equivocation on the nature of circumstances (or some other error)?