steadfast7
Puritan Board Junior
In my reading of Institutes, IV. 4, paedobaptism, I couldn't help but notice the confidence with which Calvin speaks of the status of covenant children. This status is almost one of presumed regeneration and salvation, or, at least, the language comes off that way to me. Consider some quotes:
1. IV. 16.5
2. IV. 16.6
3. IV. 16.17
4. IV. 16.22
These are some examples of what I think are clear indications that Calvin had much (if not complete) confidence on the sure salvation of covenant children. It can be argued that he is only speaking only of those children whom God has elected but not all, but I can hardly find anything of this sort of disclaimer in his Institutes, but I'd be happy to be shown some. Furthermore, if he is only speaking of elected children, then wouldn't it be a redundant carry-over from his discussion on election? Why did he go on and on the way he did?
Am I missing some interpretive keys here? Are there places where he clearly retracts from this assurance with a disclaimer? Even if there was a disclaimer, it would be evidence that his language was going to be interpreted in a certain way.
My tentative conclusion is that the idealism of Calvin reflects something that is missing from contemporary discussions on baptism, that is, that the promises conferred on covenant children are not simply pronouncements of what may happen if ... but are sure promises of something that God has done and will do.
responses?
1. IV. 16.5
The Lord did not anciently bestow circumcision upon them without making them partakers of all the things signified by circumcision. He would have deluded his people with mere imposture, had he quieted them with fallacious symbols: the very idea is shocking. He distinctly declares, that the circumcision of the infant will be instead of a seal of the promise of the covenant. But if the covenant remains firm and fixed, it is no less applicable to the children of Christians in the present day, than to the children of the Jews under the Old Testament. Now, if they are partakers of the thing signified, how can they be denied the sign? If they obtain the reality, how can they be refused the figure?
2. IV. 16.6
The covenant is common, and the reason for confirming it is common. The mode of confirming it is so far different that they had circumcision, instead of which we now have baptism. Otherwise, if the testimony by which the Jews were assured of the salvation of their seed is taken from us, the consequence will be, that, by the advent of Christ, the grace of God, which was formerly given to the Jews, is more obscure and less perfectly attested to us. If this cannot be said without extreme insult to Christ, by whom the infinite goodness of the Father has been more brightly and benignly than ever shed upon the earth, and declared to men, it must be confessed that it cannot be more confined, and less clearly manifested, than under the obscure shadows of the law.
3. IV. 16.17
For if they are to be accounted sons of Adam, they are left in death, since, in Adam, we can do nothing but die. On the contrary, Christ bids them be brought to him. Why so? Because he is life. Therefore, that he may quicken them, he makes them partners with himself; whereas these men would drive them away from Christ, and adjudge them to death.
4. IV. 16.22
Moreover, since God does not preclude this age from the hope of mercy, but rather gives assurance of it, why should we deprive it of the sign, which is much inferior to the reality? The arrow, therefore, which they aim at us, we throw back upon themselves. Infants receive forgiveness of sins; therefore, they are not to be deprived of the sign.
These are some examples of what I think are clear indications that Calvin had much (if not complete) confidence on the sure salvation of covenant children. It can be argued that he is only speaking only of those children whom God has elected but not all, but I can hardly find anything of this sort of disclaimer in his Institutes, but I'd be happy to be shown some. Furthermore, if he is only speaking of elected children, then wouldn't it be a redundant carry-over from his discussion on election? Why did he go on and on the way he did?
Am I missing some interpretive keys here? Are there places where he clearly retracts from this assurance with a disclaimer? Even if there was a disclaimer, it would be evidence that his language was going to be interpreted in a certain way.
My tentative conclusion is that the idealism of Calvin reflects something that is missing from contemporary discussions on baptism, that is, that the promises conferred on covenant children are not simply pronouncements of what may happen if ... but are sure promises of something that God has done and will do.
responses?