I have noticed in my NKJV (1984 revision) the translation often uses bondservant in key passages such as Rom 1:1; Titus 1:1; Philippines 1:1 etc. The LSB translates it slave; the ESV servant. I understand the Greek is Doulos - I don't have formal training on the original languages.
I know that LSB dogmatically assert the translation should be slave. Do you think bondservant is a happy middle ground between slave and servant?
I know that LSB dogmatically assert the translation should be slave. Do you think bondservant is a happy middle ground between slave and servant?