TheThirdandReformedAdam
Puritan Board Freshman
So I'm trying to solidify my own thinking concerning paedobaptism and I was wondering: Is it fair to say that credos view baptism as more of a statement from man to God (i.e. a profession of faith) rather than a statement of God to man of the blessings that are available through faith? This impression came upon me as I thought about how Paul deals with the circumcision of Abraham and its relationship to the Jews. Namely, the sign was able to be applied to infants precisely because the sign was a message from God, not a message from man (if its primary purpose was for man to speak to God, then we have a different story). It seems that the burden of proof would be on the credo to explain how the New Covenant sign shifts in its ultimate significance as a God-message to a Man-message. Am I off-base here?