Puritan Board Sophomore
The Westminster Confession of Faith states that baptism is, at least in part "for the solemn admission of the party baptized into the visible church". The London Baptist Confession does not contain such language. I am wondering how you would answer the objection that the WCF is wrong in this assertion, because of the examples of baptism being administered to those who were already ostensibly "in" the visible church (Jesus' disciples in John 4 and the 3,000 Jews at Pentecost). When I survey the examples of baptism in the NT, every single one of them corresponds to admission into the visible church except those two examples, unless I am missing something. Secondly, If someone asked you to defend the assertion of the confession through scripture proofs, how would you respond?