Baptism before Matt 28

[Puritan Sailor]

John 4:
1 Therefore, when the Lord knew that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John 2 (though Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples),


So, we have here an instance of Jesus, via His disciples, baptizing more disciples. What baptism was this? Since it occured before the great Commision was it John's baptism they continued? Or Trinitarian baptism? Or something else?


[Edited on 9-14-2005 by puritansailor]

 

[WrittenFromUtopia]

Does baptism have to always refer to the "act" of baptism?

 

[biblelighthouse]

Originally posted by WrittenFromUtopia
Does baptism have to always refer to the "act" of baptism?

Maybe not in all contexts . . . but in John 3-4, it obviously does refer to the act of baptism. John 4:2 says that Christ's disciples were physically doing the baptisms themselves, even though John 4:1 (as well as John 3:22, 26) counts the baptisms as having been done by Christ. --- This kind of language makes no sense at all unless John is talking about actual physical acts of baptism. Jesus was the one baptizing, but the disciples were the human "delivery boys" carrying them out . . . much like the seal of a king may be used by the servant of a king, without losing its character of being the seal of the king himself.

 

[C. Matthew McMahon]

I would say it was not John's baptism, but the same that the disciples would continue, and understand, in Matthew 28.