Casey
Puritan Board Junior
It has been suggested that Augustine's city of God/city of man distinction is synonymous with the two kingdoms (or at least an early formation of the doctrine). Maybe I haven't read enough Augustine (which would be true!), but I don't find this to be accurate. For Augustine the Christian isn't a member of both, right? But in the Lutheran/WSC two-kingdom doctrine, Christians are indeed members of both. For Augustine, the "city of man" was a description of the pagan unbelievers, those who do not love God, not of civil government per se, right? I could very well be mistaken.