Osage Bluestem
Puritan Board Junior
In another forum a person asked the question,
I answerd him in the thread in a manner I believe explains it, however I would like to see if there are any other views on this.
Here is his original post from that thread:
What is your view on this and what would your answer to his question be?
If total depravity is true why did Jesus have to speak in parables?.
I answerd him in the thread in a manner I believe explains it, however I would like to see if there are any other views on this.
Here is his original post from that thread:
"To you has been given the mystery of the kingdom of God, but those who are outside get everything in parables, 12*so that WHILE SEEING, THEY MAY SEE AND NOT PERCEIVE, AND WHILE HEARING, THEY MAY HEAR AND NOT UNDERSTAND, OTHERWISE THEY MIGHT RETURN AND BE FORGIVEN." (Cross reference Luke 8; Matt. 13)
Notice that this passage tells us that Jesus used parables so that certain Jews wouldn't believe and be forgiven. But why?
If Calvinists assumption, that men are born unable to believe in Christ without an effectual calling, is true, then why would Christ need to hide the message in parables to prevent them from believing? Notice that it says they "might return and be forgiven," proving that the parables kept that from possibly happening.
Jesus must have believed that they could have believed and "returned" to Him, otherwise why would he say this?
In short, why would you hide a message from people so they can't believe it when those people were born unable to willingly believe or even understand that message in the first place?
What is your view on this and what would your answer to his question be?