JohnV
Puritan Board Post-Graduate
II. God alone is Lord of the conscience,[10] and hath left it free from the doctrines and commandments of men, which are, in anything, contrary to his Word; or beside it, if matters of faith, or worship.[11] So that, to believe such doctrines, or to obey such commands, out of conscience, is to betray true liberty of conscience:[12] and the requiring of an implicit faith, and an absolute and blind obedience, is to destroy liberty of conscience, and reason also.[13]
10. James 4:12; Rom. 14:4, 10; I Cor. 10:29
11. Acts 4:19, 5:29; I Cor. 7:22-23; Matt. 15:1-6, 9; 23:8-10; II Cor. 1:24
12. Col. 2:20-23; Gal. 1:10; 2:4-5; 4:9-10; 5:1
13. Rom. 10:17; Isa. 8:20; Acts 17:11; John 4:22; Rev. 13:12, 16-17; Jer. 8:9; I Peter 3:15
Above is paragraph ii of the Westminster Confession of Faith, chapter XX, Of Christian Liberty, and Liberty of Conscience. the section that is underlined is what I am asking about: why is this added?
Specifically, if someone believes that his own personal view on something that falls under liberty of conscience follows reasonably from Scripture, then why is it that requiring this view of others destroys reason? How so?
Why is this phrase, in direct relation to its context, namely Christian liberty and liberty of conscience, is in the Confession too?