Acts 2 verse 39 - What is "the promise"

[Eoghan]

Peter refers to "the promise" but does not actually identify what it is. Or does he? If you look back at verse 21 the prophesy of Joel says that everyone that calls on the name of the Lord will be saved. In the hebrew text of Joel (Joel 2:32) LORD is Jehovah.

Is this the reason that Peter is at pains to show that Jesus has been made both Lord and Messiah?

This would make sense if the confession that "Jesus is Lord" (1 Corinthians 12:3, Phillipians 2:11) is linked with the fullfillment of Joel 2:32 using Psalm 110:1 as the prophecy which identifies Jesus as Lord!

 

[Ask Mr. Religion]

I think the ESV Study Bible captures the meaning well:

"Acts 2:39 Peter's word that the promise was not just for the Jews who were listening but for all who are far off implies the inclusion of Gentiles (cf. Eph. 2:13, 17). Everyone whom the Lord our God calls to himself indicates that salvation is ultimately God's work, and comes to those whom the Lord effectively calls into personal relationship with him."

AMR

 

[Herald]

Eoghan,

Yes, verse 21 is part of the promise. More directly it is what preceded in verse 28: forgiveness of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit.

 

[Andres]

I was under the impression that it was the promise of the Holy Spirit.

 

[Michael]

 

[Jack K]

What is "the promise?" Excellent question!

On the one hand, Acts has by this point already mentioned the promise of the Spirit a few times. So we might logically think that's what Peter's talking about. But that promise, at least in its initial stage, had just been fulfilled already. So I'm not sure.

More often in the New Testament, "the promise" refers to the coming salvation promised to the OT patriarchs and the people of Israel, which is fulfilled in the gospel. Later in Acts:
--"Of this man's offspring God has brought to Israel a Savior, Jesus, as he promised." Acts 13:23
--"And we bring you the good news that what God promised to the fathers." Acts 13:32
--"And now I stand here on trial because of my hope in the promise made by God to our fathers." Acts 26:6
And Romans, Galatians and Hebrews are chock full of talk of the "promise" in this sense.

So I would vote for "promise" here meaning that the promise of the ages, Jesus and the good news of salvation, is for all the peoples gathered from around the earth to hear Peter speak and for their children and those still farther away. The gift of the Spirit is a part of that, of course, as is the "everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved" passage Peter quoted.

 

[Iconoclast]

Peter refers to \"the promise\" but does not actually identify what it is. Or does he? If you look back at verse 21 the prophesy of Joel says that everyone that calls on the name of the Lord will be saved. In the hebrew text of Joel (Joel 2:32) LORD is Jehovah.

Is this the reason that Peter is at pains to show that Jesus has been made both Lord and Messiah?

This would make sense if the confession that \"Jesus is Lord\" (1 Corinthians 12:3, Phillipians 2:11) is linked with the fullfillment of Joel 2:32 using Psalm 110:1 as the prophecy which identifies Jesus as Lord!

Here is an answer to this....http://www.sermonaudio.com/sermoninfo.asp?SID=7906141921

 

[Romans922]

Thought this post might help this one.... : http://www.puritanboard.com/f44/act...ssue-other-post-acts-2-39-a-57540/#post744884

 

[reformedminister]

The promise is is explained in the verse itself: "The gift of the Holy Spirit."