Dear Brethren, It's seems to be a commonly held assumption that the King James, after 400 years, still ranks among the most accurate translations of God's Holy Word into English. I'm seeking clarification on this. Google is not helping; too many KJV-Only results. Putting aside differences in manuscripts, how accurate is the KJV compared to a translation such as the NASB? Was the KJV translated "word for word," when possible, or does it have characteristics of dynamic equivalence? There's no doubt our knowledge and understanding of Hebrew and Greek has improved since the days of the KJV. If the KJV was translated "word for word" when possible, how does this affect the accuracy of the KJV today? Thanks!