I've been reading a lot recently to better understand covenant theology. I grew up Baptist, so I have plenty of questions to ask. *Please note this is in the Covenant Theology forum, so covenant theology responses only please*
In the OT, it is very clear that God did not require Israelites to merely be circumcised in the flesh...but to have circumcised hearts. But what evidence would we have that there was an understanding of the need for a circumcised heart when circumcision was initially given in Genesis 17? Do we know this simply because God-requiring-a-circumcised-heart does not seems to be a new idea when this issue is brought up by Moses or the prophets? How was it made clear what this sign of circumcision was pointing to...or was this not fully understood until further revelation came along?
Would Abraham have understood the full theological importance of circumcision when the sign was given to him...since we do know that God preached the Gospel to him previously in saying he'd be the father of many nations? (...so maybe the full significance of circumcision was made clear to him then, too?)
Similarly, was it understood what was required to be faithful to the covenant? Obviously, faith needed to be exercised...but what else would he have known regarding how he was to obey God (especially since this was before the Law was given)?
Thank you very much for the help!!
In the OT, it is very clear that God did not require Israelites to merely be circumcised in the flesh...but to have circumcised hearts. But what evidence would we have that there was an understanding of the need for a circumcised heart when circumcision was initially given in Genesis 17? Do we know this simply because God-requiring-a-circumcised-heart does not seems to be a new idea when this issue is brought up by Moses or the prophets? How was it made clear what this sign of circumcision was pointing to...or was this not fully understood until further revelation came along?
Would Abraham have understood the full theological importance of circumcision when the sign was given to him...since we do know that God preached the Gospel to him previously in saying he'd be the father of many nations? (...so maybe the full significance of circumcision was made clear to him then, too?)
Similarly, was it understood what was required to be faithful to the covenant? Obviously, faith needed to be exercised...but what else would he have known regarding how he was to obey God (especially since this was before the Law was given)?
Thank you very much for the help!!