no1special18
Puritan Board Freshman
I first encountered this question on an anti-calvinist sight. At first I did not pay much attention to it, because it poses more of a problem to the one asking it (if he is arminian) then it did to Calvinist, howerver, I am curious as to what is the best way to answer it from the reformed perspective (obviously)?
Here it is. If man is totally depraved as defined by Calvinists (and I like to add the Bible to that), why in Mark 4:12 did Jesus indicate that if they had been given a clear message, instead of parables, they would have returned and been forgiven?
Like I said I did not bother with this because it posses a huge to problem to the Armenian's interpratation of "God desires all to be saved...." Still, I was thinking that maybe the Calvinist should answer this after all. Should we just assume that God would have regenerated their hearts had they heard the Gospel, and leave it at that, or is there an answer that gives more of an explanation?
Here it is. If man is totally depraved as defined by Calvinists (and I like to add the Bible to that), why in Mark 4:12 did Jesus indicate that if they had been given a clear message, instead of parables, they would have returned and been forgiven?
Like I said I did not bother with this because it posses a huge to problem to the Armenian's interpratation of "God desires all to be saved...." Still, I was thinking that maybe the Calvinist should answer this after all. Should we just assume that God would have regenerated their hearts had they heard the Gospel, and leave it at that, or is there an answer that gives more of an explanation?