A phrase in WCF 1.8

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Bodigean

Puritan Board Freshman
I did a search on this to see if anyone dealt with this previously, if someone has I missed it. Forgive me if I did.

WCF 1.8 Reads: "The Old Testament in Hebrew (which was the native language of the people of God of old) , and the New Testament in Greek (which, at the time of the writing of it was most generally known to the nations) , being immediately inspired by God, and, by His singular care and providence, kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentical; so as, in all controversies of religion, the Church is finally to appeal unto them. But, because these original tongues are not known to all the people of God, who have right unto and interest in the Scriptures, and are commanded, in the fear of God, to read and search them, therefore they are to be translated into the vulgar language of every nation unto which they come, that the Word of God dwelling plentifully in all, they may worship Him in an acceptable manner; and, through patience and comfort of the Scriptures, may have hope."

The phrase "that the Word of God dwelling plentifully in all", could anyone (or several) give an explanation to this? What was the intent when that was penned? (The Second London Confession reads the same, BTW)

Thanks.

Sincerely,
Mark
 
It indicates the same sense as Col. 3:16; if people cannot understand the word, they cannot know it and allow it to abide in them; and therefore, they cannot know whereby "they may worship Him in an acceptable manner;" and, being unacquainted with the promises, they cannot "through patience and comfort of the Scriptures, have hope."
 
This is also a case where "all" does not mean all. It does mean, however, that all in which the Word of God does dwell ". . . may worship Him in an acceptable manner; and, through patience and comfort of the Scriptures, may have hope."
:graduate:
 
Westminster Confession of Faith
1.8

unto and interest in the Scriptures, and are commanded, in the fear of God, to read and search them, therefore they are to be translated into the vulgar language of every nation unto which they come, that the Word of God dwelling plentifully in all, they may worship Him in an acceptable manner; and, through patience and comfort of the Scriptures, may have hope."

In context, it means that the Word of God is complete, that God will superintend His Word, and accomplish His purposes for it in many different common languages. It's saying that God will not lose his meaning if His Word is translated from the original manuscripts of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.

("vulgar" means common, that is a language common to the people).
 
The phrase "that the Word of God dwelling plentifully in all", could anyone (or several) give an explanation to this? What was the intent when that was penned? (The Second London Confession reads the same, BTW)

Larger Catechism answers 156 and 157 shed some light on this. The Scriptures are to be translated out of the original into vulgar languages and they are to be read with an high and reverent esteem of them and with a firm persuasion that they are the very Word of God.
 
As Prufrock tried to state plainly...it simply means that if the Word is not read/PROCLAIMED, it cannot possibley DWELL in anyone...yet, if it is translated and read/preached...it will (by the grace of God's election) DWELL in (at least) some who "hear" (are given understanding) of it.

The exact reference is not coming to mind...but, it is something like..."with a different tounge will I speak to this people, and they will understand..."

Maybe in the WCF they use that Scripture as a proof-text...but, at the moment, I haven't mine handy.

Simple gist of it is, if I spoke to you in Latin the gospel message, and you didn't understand Latin, how could it POSSIBLELY be effectual towards your comprehension of the gospel, therefore leaving you void of it's DWELLING in you. ;)
 
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