2nd Declension Neuter Nouns

Status
Not open for further replies.

Filter

Puritan Board Freshman
I have been trying to learn Greek over the past couple months, using Constantine Campbell and Richard Gibson’s Reading Biblical Greek (It was given to me for Christmas last year).

In my current lesson, I notice that 2nd declension neuter nouns decline differently that their masculine counterparts in that the plural nominative and accusative cases end in -α as opposed to -οι (ie λόγοι vs έργα). Is this true for every 2nd declension neuter noun? That is, they follow the pattern of εργον? The workbook is seems a bit ambiguous - I think it used the terms ‘masculine and feminine’ instead of 1st and 2nd declension for the sake of ease, and is now trying to explain the differences between them, so I’m a little confused. Any help would be appreciated!
 
Yes. In Greek (and incidentally, in Latin also) one of the marks of a neuter noun is that it is the same in form in both the nominative and accusative cases.
 
Thank you, I appreciate the confirmation. For some reason it drives me crazy when I only think I know how something works without being able to confirm it.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top