My wife and I are going through 1 Peter in our devotions. I have a question concerning reprobation. We see a lot of monergistic language here in the following verses:
To those who are elect exiles
1 Peter 1:1a
According to his great mercy, he has caused us to be born again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
1 Peter 1:3b
Like newborn infants, long for the pure spiritual milk, that by it you may grow up into salvation— if indeed you have tasted that the Lord is good.
1 Peter 2:2-3
Then, in verse 8 of chapter 2:
They stumble because they disobey the word, as they were destined to do.
1 Peter 2:8b
My question is, were they destined to stumble because they were non-elect, God had not caused them to be born again, and they had not tasted that the Lord is good?
Or, was God more active in their stumbling? Did he actively harden their hearts or did he let them choose what they would by nature, being sinners and then harden their hearts as a response to them hardening their own hearts?
I tend to lean toward an understanding of Romans 9 that says that we harden our hearts and God hardens our hearts simultaneously.
Romans 9:18 says:
So then he has mercy on whomever he wills, and he hardens whomever he wills.
So, it would seem to logically follow that if God wasn't having mercy on someone, then he would be hardening them. Perhaps not indefinitely, if they're elect, but at least until the appointed time for their conversion.
To those who are elect exiles
1 Peter 1:1a
According to his great mercy, he has caused us to be born again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
1 Peter 1:3b
Like newborn infants, long for the pure spiritual milk, that by it you may grow up into salvation— if indeed you have tasted that the Lord is good.
1 Peter 2:2-3
Then, in verse 8 of chapter 2:
They stumble because they disobey the word, as they were destined to do.
1 Peter 2:8b
My question is, were they destined to stumble because they were non-elect, God had not caused them to be born again, and they had not tasted that the Lord is good?
Or, was God more active in their stumbling? Did he actively harden their hearts or did he let them choose what they would by nature, being sinners and then harden their hearts as a response to them hardening their own hearts?
I tend to lean toward an understanding of Romans 9 that says that we harden our hearts and God hardens our hearts simultaneously.
Romans 9:18 says:
So then he has mercy on whomever he wills, and he hardens whomever he wills.
So, it would seem to logically follow that if God wasn't having mercy on someone, then he would be hardening them. Perhaps not indefinitely, if they're elect, but at least until the appointed time for their conversion.