Polanus1561
Puritan Board Junior
And one washed the chariot in the pool of Samaria; and the dogs licked up his blood; and they washed his armour; according unto the word of the Lord which he spake. KJV
Then someone washed the chariot at a pool in Samaria, and the dogs licked up his blood while the harlots bathed, according to the word of the Lord which He had spoken. NKJV
And they washed the chariot by the pool of Samaria, and the dogs licked up his blood, and the prostitutes washed themselves in it, according to the word of the Lord that he had spoken. ESV
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The change in the KJV may be motivated to to the original prophecy of Ahab's death not including prostitutes.
1 Kg 21.19 - ‘Thus says the Lord: “In the place where dogs licked the blood of Naboth, dogs shall lick your blood, even yours.” NKJV
NKJV ESV and many others translate 1 kg 22.38 passage literally, and include the translation of 'prostitutes'.
KJV translates it with a relative pronoun 'they'. Why? I believe it is because elsewhere, prostitutes (males) are referred to as dogs Deut.23.18 - You shall not bring the wages of a harlot or the price of a dog to the house of the Lord your God for any vowed offering.
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1) How would you explain why the KJV rendered it as such?
2) How would you translate 1 Kg 22:38 according to what your deem as literal and accurate?
Then someone washed the chariot at a pool in Samaria, and the dogs licked up his blood while the harlots bathed, according to the word of the Lord which He had spoken. NKJV
And they washed the chariot by the pool of Samaria, and the dogs licked up his blood, and the prostitutes washed themselves in it, according to the word of the Lord that he had spoken. ESV
----
The change in the KJV may be motivated to to the original prophecy of Ahab's death not including prostitutes.
1 Kg 21.19 - ‘Thus says the Lord: “In the place where dogs licked the blood of Naboth, dogs shall lick your blood, even yours.” NKJV
NKJV ESV and many others translate 1 kg 22.38 passage literally, and include the translation of 'prostitutes'.
KJV translates it with a relative pronoun 'they'. Why? I believe it is because elsewhere, prostitutes (males) are referred to as dogs Deut.23.18 - You shall not bring the wages of a harlot or the price of a dog to the house of the Lord your God for any vowed offering.
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1) How would you explain why the KJV rendered it as such?
2) How would you translate 1 Kg 22:38 according to what your deem as literal and accurate?