I have noticed what I believe to be an oddity in the ESV. In Revelation 13:8, the text reads like this: "...everyone whose name has not been written before the foundation of the world..." The Greek word behind "before" is ἀπὸ which, as far as I can tell, does not have the temporal "before" in its semantic range. Furthermore, in every other instance where we find ἀπὸ followed by the genitive case, the ESV translates it as "from," indicating source. This rendering seems to be a carry-over from the RSV. Some commentators even seem to offer "before" as either their translation or a possible translation, yet none of them address directly or specifically the fact that the temporal "before" does not appear to be an option for this term. What is the deal here?