I have a quote μένομεν ὥσπερ ἔσμεν but checking the source the original is μένωμεν ὥσπερ ἔσμεν. Look up both the first words essentially mean the same thing. Is there a reason the quoter changed; some grammer reason (of which I have no knowledge). Or is it a mistake if the original was μένωμεν? The text is poor and old ligatures are involved but I think I have the readings right. And it seems to me the "ο" is clear in the quote verses the "ω" in the original.