JTB.SDG
Puritan Board Junior
Guys,
The mainstream reformed interpretation of this verse is that it's simply speaking of the fact that we have bodies that are physically dying and indeed one day will die (because of Adam's sin). The reason for this view seems to be the next verse, which the same theologians take as meaning basically: God will give us new bodies that don't die at the resurrection. It is said that Paul is referring back to what he had been saying in Romans 5 about imputed sin. Many of these interpreters seem to be completely closed to the option that this clause may be referring to our remaining flesh as believers, which continues to be with us.
Question 1: Why the hostility towards the other view? Why can't we say, it may be this or it may be that? I ask this especially in light of the fact that Calvin himself held the latter view.
Question 2: Does it not fit just as well, if not better, to see "body" here (Gr. soma) as indeed referring, AT LEAST in part, to our remaining corruption/flesh? This is how Paul uses the same Greek word in the immediate context (much closer than way back in Romans 5); both BEFORE (in 7:24: "the body of this death", speaking about our remaining flesh) and AFTER (in 8:13, "putting to death the deeds of the body", speaking about remaining corruptions.
The whole context of Romans 7 is this very question. In Romans 7 Paul's not wrestling with the fact that the bodies of believers still die. Though I know this is hotly debated, yet the mainstream Reformed interpretation is that he's wrestling with the fact that even as a Christians, we continue to struggle with the flesh. Does it not make most sense to see Paul as saying: Look, you are alive in Jesus despite the fact that you still struggle every day with your remaining corruptions. And the day is coming quickly when He will set you free from those as well (?)
Thoughts?
The mainstream reformed interpretation of this verse is that it's simply speaking of the fact that we have bodies that are physically dying and indeed one day will die (because of Adam's sin). The reason for this view seems to be the next verse, which the same theologians take as meaning basically: God will give us new bodies that don't die at the resurrection. It is said that Paul is referring back to what he had been saying in Romans 5 about imputed sin. Many of these interpreters seem to be completely closed to the option that this clause may be referring to our remaining flesh as believers, which continues to be with us.
Question 1: Why the hostility towards the other view? Why can't we say, it may be this or it may be that? I ask this especially in light of the fact that Calvin himself held the latter view.
Question 2: Does it not fit just as well, if not better, to see "body" here (Gr. soma) as indeed referring, AT LEAST in part, to our remaining corruption/flesh? This is how Paul uses the same Greek word in the immediate context (much closer than way back in Romans 5); both BEFORE (in 7:24: "the body of this death", speaking about our remaining flesh) and AFTER (in 8:13, "putting to death the deeds of the body", speaking about remaining corruptions.
The whole context of Romans 7 is this very question. In Romans 7 Paul's not wrestling with the fact that the bodies of believers still die. Though I know this is hotly debated, yet the mainstream Reformed interpretation is that he's wrestling with the fact that even as a Christians, we continue to struggle with the flesh. Does it not make most sense to see Paul as saying: Look, you are alive in Jesus despite the fact that you still struggle every day with your remaining corruptions. And the day is coming quickly when He will set you free from those as well (?)
Thoughts?
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