For I am not ashamed of the Gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jews first, and also to the Greek. For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith. For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men... Rom 1:16-18
Is the difference between the righteousness of God and the righteousness of man one of kind or degree?
If God's righteousness is "infinite, eternal, and unchangeable" then wouldn't it be a difference in kind in the same way that the "infinite, eternal, and unchangeable" being of God is a difference in kind with man's finite, limited, and changeable being?