InSlaveryToChrist
Puritan Board Junior
Just recently listened to a three-part-series public debate on the subject of common grace on Sermonaudio.com between Ron Hanko (speaking against common grace and maintaining that God never shows favour of any kind to any but his elect) and David Silversides (defending the doctrine of common grace; i.e. that God does show favour to the non-elect in this present life).
Ron Hanko made an interesting point in stating that so many Christians today have the misconception that, when the Bible talks about God's wrath and hatred, they mean the same thing. This is what he said,
Here's the link to the debate, if you're interested:
SermonAudio.com - Sermons on common grace
The debate is entitled "Common Grace: Is it Biblical?"
I, myself, have come up with the following idea:
Wrath is God’s righteous judgment of the sinner.
Hatred is God’s just rebrobation of the sinner.
Wrath is God’s means of judging the sinner.
Hatred is God’s decree of the destruction of the sinner.
I'm certainly not sure, whether this is the true understanding regarding the nature of God's wrath and hatred, or whether there even is a distinction to be made between the two. I have found a way to harmonize this line of thinking by proposing that, when the Bible talks about "the wicked", it refers not to God's elect, but the reprobate wicked, alone. This way of reasoning is undeniably true, when the Bible talks about "the righteous" or those who "do good" (in the sight of God), for the only way of being truly righteous, and of bearing good fruits is by Christ (Phil. 1:11). The problem arises, however, that if by "the wicked" is meant only the reprobate, then how could it be said that Christ died for "the wicked"?
My main intention here is, nevertheless, that I could get a clearer understanding on the words 'wrath' and 'hatred' as described in the Bible. I have a strong feeling that the original thought behind the minds of the Hebrew writers is missing concerning these words.
WHAT ARE YOUR OPINIONS ON ALL THIS? I've been unable to find any antecedent threads concerning the making of distinction between the words 'wrath' and 'hatred' as described in the Bible - have there been any discussion on this topic before?
Ron Hanko made an interesting point in stating that so many Christians today have the misconception that, when the Bible talks about God's wrath and hatred, they mean the same thing. This is what he said,
"I don’t believe that the elect are ever hated by God, but I certainly believe that they can be under the judicial wrath of God, and that they often are under it, even after they’ve been brought to salvation, that they can experience the heavy hand of God against them in their sins, as David did, when he sinned with Bathsheba, he records his experience of the wrath of God against his sins in Psalm 32.
I can be very wrathful with my children, but that doesn’t mean I hate them. I certainly had better not hate them in being wrathful with them. In fact, my wrath with them is my expression of my love for them. At least it should be, and by the grace of God I hope it is. But you see, what I’m saying is, there’s quite a difference between wrath and hatred. God certainly can be angry and when He comes to them and saves them, then He saves them from wrath, and from that deep sense of condemnation that’s part of the wrath of God, to give them peace through His grace. But that does not mean that He hates them. His wrath against them is not a wrath which is rooted in hatred for them, but a wrath rooted in His eternal and unchangeable love for them, even after they’ve been saved, when He reveals His wrath, He reveals it in order to turn them from their sins, and to bring them back to Himself."
Here's the link to the debate, if you're interested:
SermonAudio.com - Sermons on common grace
The debate is entitled "Common Grace: Is it Biblical?"
I, myself, have come up with the following idea:
Wrath is God’s righteous judgment of the sinner.
Hatred is God’s just rebrobation of the sinner.
Wrath is God’s means of judging the sinner.
Hatred is God’s decree of the destruction of the sinner.
I'm certainly not sure, whether this is the true understanding regarding the nature of God's wrath and hatred, or whether there even is a distinction to be made between the two. I have found a way to harmonize this line of thinking by proposing that, when the Bible talks about "the wicked", it refers not to God's elect, but the reprobate wicked, alone. This way of reasoning is undeniably true, when the Bible talks about "the righteous" or those who "do good" (in the sight of God), for the only way of being truly righteous, and of bearing good fruits is by Christ (Phil. 1:11). The problem arises, however, that if by "the wicked" is meant only the reprobate, then how could it be said that Christ died for "the wicked"?
My main intention here is, nevertheless, that I could get a clearer understanding on the words 'wrath' and 'hatred' as described in the Bible. I have a strong feeling that the original thought behind the minds of the Hebrew writers is missing concerning these words.
WHAT ARE YOUR OPINIONS ON ALL THIS? I've been unable to find any antecedent threads concerning the making of distinction between the words 'wrath' and 'hatred' as described in the Bible - have there been any discussion on this topic before?
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