kevin.carroll
Puritan Board Junior
I have been trying to get at the heart of the question of why Presbyterians so doggedly pray "forgive us our debts" when everyone else prays "forgive us our trespasses."
I've come acrosss some theories on the subject (two of which sound like sanctified urban legends to me):
1. It was pure Scottish stubborness. The English prayed "forgive us our trespasses" so praying "debts" was just a way to stick it to the English.
2. The Scotts were often debtors to the English (who were the landholders), so their preference reflected their situation.
3. The Scotts in their uber-animosity towards both the English (seems a common thread) and Catholics, deliberately chose not to use words found in the Book of Common prayer, which they deemed popish.
Anyone know the actual skinny on the subject?
I've come acrosss some theories on the subject (two of which sound like sanctified urban legends to me):
1. It was pure Scottish stubborness. The English prayed "forgive us our trespasses" so praying "debts" was just a way to stick it to the English.
2. The Scotts were often debtors to the English (who were the landholders), so their preference reflected their situation.
3. The Scotts in their uber-animosity towards both the English (seems a common thread) and Catholics, deliberately chose not to use words found in the Book of Common prayer, which they deemed popish.
Anyone know the actual skinny on the subject?