6 "This is what the LORD Almighty says: 'In a little while I will once more shake the heavens and the earth, the sea and the dry land. 7 I will shake all nations, and the desired of all nations will come, and I will fill this house with glory,' says the LORD Almighty. 8 'The silver is mine and the gold is mine,' declares the LORD Almighty. 9 'The glory of this present house will be greater than the glory of the former house,' says the LORD Almighty. 'And in this place I will grant peace,' declares the LORD Almighty."
I was reading Verhoef's NICOT commentary on Haggai and he says that Calvin favored a non-messianic interpretation of v 7 (i.e., the nations will bring much wealth and the second temple was simply more glorious in the end than the first temple) instead of a Messianic interpretation of v 7 (the Christ is the desire of all nations and is the glorious temple referred to). Reading Calvin's commentary, I got the impression that he favored the messianic interpretation. Which did Calvin favor?
I was reading Verhoef's NICOT commentary on Haggai and he says that Calvin favored a non-messianic interpretation of v 7 (i.e., the nations will bring much wealth and the second temple was simply more glorious in the end than the first temple) instead of a Messianic interpretation of v 7 (the Christ is the desire of all nations and is the glorious temple referred to). Reading Calvin's commentary, I got the impression that he favored the messianic interpretation. Which did Calvin favor?
