DonP
Puritan Board Junior
Only one question then, does Eph 5:19 and Col 3:16 teach more than the psalms, and is this referring to in public worship.
Now how could it? Stop and think, if you were a 1st Century Jew who was a believer or became converted and met in the synagogue or some other place and this was written to you, what would you think it meant?
Well, history seems to show that they thought it meant compose new hymns. Isn't that why Paul included new hymns in his letters (E.g Col 1:15-20,)? He is quoting early hymns to Christ. If he is quoting early hymns wouldn't that must mean that the earliest Christians were composing them? And would the fact that he is including them in letters meant to be read during worship mean that Paul thought it was ok to include new Christian hymns in the worship service?
What hymn did he quote?
Col 1:15-20 was a new hymn??
And even if it was we have no problem with new hymns, just not to use them in the stated worship
So no this still would not tell me it was OK to use them in worship.
Although if it is a hymn then it is included in revelation and would therefore be an inspired hymn, thus, not a new uninspired hymn.
Can you site something to help me see why you think this is a new hymn?