panta dokimazete
Puritan Board Post-Graduate
dcomin said:The phrase, "according to the order of David" in this verse simply refers to the command of David to implement the priestly function of the Levitical musicians who employed their instruments in connection with the burnt offering according to the commandment of God. The "order of David" does not refer to an institution separate and distinct from the "Law of Moses."
Please demonstrate where in the sacrificial system prior to David that the Levitical priesthood was ordained to rejoice with singing accompanied by instruments. There is a distinction.
The rationale of the author of Hebrews is that Christ, as the High Priest of the good things to come, fulfilled and put an end to the types and shadows of the OT priestly office. The passages I've cited from 1 and 2 Chronicles demonstrate plainly that the use of musical instruments in connection with the sacrifice was an integral part of that OT priestly and Levitical office and function. Thus they are now put away, having been fulfilled by Him.
The scripture I quoted clearly associates what types and shadows were abrogated. The Davidic custom of rejoicing and singing accompanied by music has not been abrogated; it has been expanded into the priesthood of believers. Thus the aposlte's mandate that we utilize David's Psalms as our guide for NT worship.