TaylorOtwell
Puritan Board Junior
Hi friends,
I have learned more and more about the Reformed perspective over the past year or so. However, one thing I am currently wrestling with is the issue of the Sabbath.
I understand and agree that the Lord's Day was the traditional and accepted meeting time for the early church. However, I don't understand how many of the Jewish Sabbath stipulations got moved to this day, or where Scripture indicates that they did.
What Biblical evidence do we have that would support the view that Jewish Sabbath stipulations carried over onto the Lord's Day?
The position I am more familiar with is a New Covenant Theology position that states that there is no distinction between moral/ceremonial/civil law and that the entire law of Moses is abrogated in the life of the believer. Therefore, only the commandments of Christ and His Apostles are binding on the believer. In other words, this position does not equate the Ten Commandments with the immutable, absolute moral law of God.
What evidence do we have that demonstrates that the Ten Commandments are that absolute moral law of God; therefore, binding on all people everywhere for all time.
I have learned more and more about the Reformed perspective over the past year or so. However, one thing I am currently wrestling with is the issue of the Sabbath.
I understand and agree that the Lord's Day was the traditional and accepted meeting time for the early church. However, I don't understand how many of the Jewish Sabbath stipulations got moved to this day, or where Scripture indicates that they did.
What Biblical evidence do we have that would support the view that Jewish Sabbath stipulations carried over onto the Lord's Day?
The position I am more familiar with is a New Covenant Theology position that states that there is no distinction between moral/ceremonial/civil law and that the entire law of Moses is abrogated in the life of the believer. Therefore, only the commandments of Christ and His Apostles are binding on the believer. In other words, this position does not equate the Ten Commandments with the immutable, absolute moral law of God.
What evidence do we have that demonstrates that the Ten Commandments are that absolute moral law of God; therefore, binding on all people everywhere for all time.