Cause vs Author

[Minh]

It seems that by inferring these Scriptures (Isaiah 63:17, 2 Chronicles 18:19), God is the ultimate cause of sins while man is the immediate cause of sins. Yet I am confused because of the two terms cause and author. What does it mean to be the cause (or in God's case, the ultimate cause) of sins? What does it mean to be the author of sins? An explanation in plain terms is highly appreciated!

Reference:
https://protestantreformed.wordpres...-sin-or-ultimate-cause-is-there-a-difference/

 

[jwright82]

Well first off we are talking analogically about God, I don't know how God is sovereign and I'm responsible for sin. Because these are human terms. So God is not the author of sin but is never the less sovereign in all things. Also there's the issue of primary and secondary causes. This is confusing linguistically but a necessary one none the less. A question, do I I have to understand point by point how God is sovereign and yet not the author of sin? No unless he reveals it point by point I can't understand it.
It's also a category mistake, ascribing attributes of one thing to a different thing (like physical location of abstract concepts, like essences or something) that results in confusion. Hence to ascribe a purely human concept, like sovereignty to God, who is not human, and expect a straightforward one to one relationship is a category mistake. Does that help?

 

[Minh]

A question, do I I have to understand point by point how God is sovereign and yet not the author of sin? No unless he reveals it point by point I can't understand it.

It seem that you understand my struggle here. Your post did help. To clarify, rather than relying on human logic, do you mean that the best and wise way to deal with the problem of evil is just obeying what the Scripture has to say on that matter?

 

[jwright82]

It seem that you understand my struggle here. Your post did help. To clarify, rather than relying on human logic, do you mean that the best and wise way to deal with the problem of evil is just obeying what the Scripture has to say on that matter?

I'm glad it helped. Look at it this way. The bible presents both truths together, so we must say "yes and amen" to both. The question posed as I've showed rests on logical problems and not making biblical distinctions. The question posed is logically defeated but we can still affirm the mystery involved. Now this probably won't be very persuasive to the unbeliever or theologically abberent Christian but that is a practical question not a logical one. Wisdom and experience must take over from there depending upon where they want to go further in the conversation, if at all.