HisRobes4Mine
Puritan Board Freshman
My wife and I have been having some serious discussions about baptism recently. I lean paedo while she remains staunch credo. One of the points that keeps her credo is the general pattern of the NT being “repent and then be baptized.” Essentially the argument is that faith must proceed the giving of the covenant sign.
Is it possible to demonstrate that the giving of the covenant sign can be given to someone prior to expressing faith without going back into the OT?
Is it possible to demonstrate that the giving of the covenant sign can be given to someone prior to expressing faith without going back into the OT?