Ed Walsh
Puritan Board Senior
Note: This is an email I sent to my Pastor last night after spending some face-to-face time with him on Thursday.
Dear Pastor *****
I enjoyed our time together yesterday afternoon. Thanks.
Regarding our discussion of Acts 19:1-6 and my contention that the disciples were NOT re-baptized as verse 5 is translated to say:
I am getting clobbered on my take of verse 5. Everyone and I mean everyone, I checked (except Calvin) stated that they were re-baptized, or actually, they were baptized for the first time since their first "baptism," maybe by one of John's disciples after John was either dead or in prison, was defective or incomplete somehow.
vs.5 "and they, having heard, were baptized--to the name of the Lord Jesus," YLT
vs.5 "When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus." NKJV
I maintain that the word 'this' is not in the original. It could just as well have been the word 'that' that was added. Or maybe better yet, no inserted word at all making the verse say the following:
After Paul stated, in verse four, that John's baptism was in essence Christian baptism, those that heard Paul had the following response.
vs. 5 "When they heard they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus," etc. ELW (Ed L Walsh
vs. 6 “And when Paul had laid hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke with tongues and prophesied. NKJV
If they were re-baptized, this is the only place I can think of in the New Testament that even hints that the followers of the Baptist had to be baptized a second time by Christ’s disciples. Is this not true?
What do you all think?
Dear Pastor *****
I enjoyed our time together yesterday afternoon. Thanks.
Regarding our discussion of Acts 19:1-6 and my contention that the disciples were NOT re-baptized as verse 5 is translated to say:
I am getting clobbered on my take of verse 5. Everyone and I mean everyone, I checked (except Calvin) stated that they were re-baptized, or actually, they were baptized for the first time since their first "baptism," maybe by one of John's disciples after John was either dead or in prison, was defective or incomplete somehow.
vs.5 "and they, having heard, were baptized--to the name of the Lord Jesus," YLT
vs.5 "When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus." NKJV
I maintain that the word 'this' is not in the original. It could just as well have been the word 'that' that was added. Or maybe better yet, no inserted word at all making the verse say the following:
After Paul stated, in verse four, that John's baptism was in essence Christian baptism, those that heard Paul had the following response.
vs. 5 "When they heard they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus," etc. ELW (Ed L Walsh
vs. 6 “And when Paul had laid hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke with tongues and prophesied. NKJV
If they were re-baptized, this is the only place I can think of in the New Testament that even hints that the followers of the Baptist had to be baptized a second time by Christ’s disciples. Is this not true?
What do you all think?