Josh Walker, over at Bring the Books, has an interesting post on this notorious passage.
He follows Carson/Moo in saying it is not Scripture, a position I am unwilling to take for a variety of reasons. My question to you preaching types out there is, how do you handle issues like this when preaching verse-by-verse?
Back in the "glory days," when everyone had a KJV, issues like this were not issues. But now, when you have various translations relegating the passage to a footnote or, worse, set off by brackets and reader advisories, it seems that you cannot ignore the textual problem.
I found Calvin helpful:
Thoughts?It is plain enough that this passage was unknown anciently to the Greek Churches; and some conjecture that it has been brought from some other place and inserted here. But as it has always been received by the Latin Churches, and is found in many old Greek manuscripts, and contains nothing unworthy of an Apostolic Spirit, there is no reason why we should refuse to apply it to our advantage.