OK the title is perhaps a tad provocative but should we treat Acts any differently from Romans? He is basically documenting the history of the early church - "rulings" such as the Council of Jerusalem are viewed by some as a historic compromise allowing fellowship between Jews and Gentiles allowing "table fellowship". It records a "negGentile otiated settlement" which was discontinued as the Jewish "Ecclesia" gave way to the Gentile "ecclesia".

Is this an example of how it is historically accurate but eating kosher food is not "doctrine".