Isaiah 63:17 gives me pause:
Now I know it is true that God does harden and soften hearts for his own purposes.17 O Lord, why do you make us wander from your ways
and harden our heart, so that we fear you not?
But here the writer is asking why God has harden his or their heart.
How am I suppose to understand a verse like this?
Is this a question I could/should/may ask?
Or would that be blaming God for my own corrupt sinfulness?
But (he asks trembling), if God made me inside and out, is not he somewhat responsible for my love of sin?
Comments most welcome my friends.
(and please don't blast me for asking!)