Hello Pilgrim - I feel like John Wayne when I say that 
I appreciate your desire to explore the Word of God.
I would like to explore a part of your profession that troubles me a bit about your reasoning. You wrote:
I interpret these verses to teach that, first of all, those who received Peter's word that day were baptized (i.e. only those personally professing faith) and that this same group continued steadfastly breaking bread which typically included in those days the celebration of the Lord's Supper. These two verses, in my opinion, throw the Reformed teaching of paedobaptism and credo communion into serious doubt. It appears that the two choices that do justice to the unity expressed here are adopting Baptist views or adopting paedocommunion.
As an aside: How can 3,000 people be submerged by Baptism in one day? Only the Apostles had authority to baptize, and there were 12 of them. Each Apostle would have to baptize 750 people in one day? That in itself seems a bit far-fetched.
It seems to me that you are reading a lot into these passages that may not necessarily be there. The danger of any theology is taking one verse and making a doctrine out of it, and then applying it where ever it is convienant. I am mostly addressing those who hold to paedocommunion from this one passage only. Jesus taught His apostles well, and those teachings concerning communion that forbids infants and children from it can be found in 1 Cor 11:27,28. Are you claiming that the Apostles did not know these teachings when they gave the Lord's Supper to the 3,000? (I ask the Paedocommunist). The Bible gives different criteria for Baptism and the Lord's Supper.
The Day of Pentecost was a very special celebration in the Jewish calendar. The Bible required the whole male population of Israel was to appear before God in the Temple on that day, Deut. 16:16. The command includes "all your males," and it does not distinguish age. The command is mentioned several times in the Scriptures, Ex 23:17; 34:23. Now, "each man had to give as he is able," vs. 17, which seems to exclude infants (though it might be that the father gave on behalf of his infant child (also an infant or young child may not be able, and thus need not give) - I don't know). The crowd was probably composed of all men, because that is how Peter addressed them, Acts 2:28. Apparently, there were children among them, because Peter addresses "your children" as well, vs. 39.
So, if "all those who gladly received the word were baptized" were men only, then we would have to ask ourselves if this passage is determinative for the whole Church? Apparently, it cannot be, because we learn later in Scripture that women were baptized as well, such as Lydia. The majority of these men, no doubt, were husbands and fathers and were heads of households.
The Jews had as the sign of the everlasting covenant the rite of Circumcision. Abraham was required to Believe before he was to be circumcised. Yet, this circumcision was not given to him only as a Believer, but it was also given to his infant child 8 days old.
Now, when Peter says to the all male crowd that, "the Promise is to you, your children and all who are afar off - even as many as the Lord God shall call" what would that mean to the 3,000 heads of households as they come for baptism with their young children and infants? If Peter just told them that the "Promise was to their children" then how could Peter refuse Baptism to the children of professing Believers "those who gladly received the Word"? The Bible often counts only the men in the Church, Ex 12:37.
Abraham believed, and his children were circumcised. "Those who gladly recevied the Word," were Baptized, and their children as well.
I know that the credo-baptist screams at this and claims that the Scriptures have been violated. But a thoughtful person such as yourself should consider these two things:
1) Since we have a warrant in the Bible that Believers and their children are considered members of the New Covenant - because Circumcision was considered the sign and seal of the New Covenant in the OT. It is then up to the credo-baptist to prove that children of believers are no longer considered in the New Covenant. We should expect a clear statement in the New Testament that the children of believers are no longer considered members of the New Covenant. Where would you find such a statement, or, how would you develop such an argument?
2) Since we can find in the New Testament statements that assume the continunity of the requirement that the children of believers are in the New Covenant, it then follows that we should baptize our children:
Jesus says that the children of Godly parents are "members of the Kingdom of Heaven," Mt 19:13, Mk 10:13.
1 Cor 7:14 - The faith of a believer sanctifies his/her spouse for the sake of their children who are then considered "holy." The word can also be translated "saint."
When the whole scope of the Bible is considered, then the testimony favors paedo-baptism.
Blessings,
-CH
In Essentials Unity, in non-Essentials Liberty, in all things Charity.
Robert Paul Wieland
Springs Reformed Presbyterian Church
Colorado Springs, CO RPCNA
Student at Reformed Presbyterian Theological Seminary, Pittsburgh PA
Never be afraid to do something new. Remember, amateurs built the Ark, but professionals built the Titanic.
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