The issue with the household baptisms is not whether their were infants in the household; rather, it is whether the other members of the household made a profession of faith or not, which is the credo requirement. I believe these examples are clear, crisp evidences that the other members of the household did not.
Originally Posted by Herald
I don't think this is a "partisan leap," but rather allowing the text to speak for itself and then making sense of it from the covenantal perspective. So, with Abraham (Genesis 17) and throughout the OT, we see household circumcisions; in the NT, we see household baptisms. So, if one proves that baptism has replaced circumcision as the sign and seal of the covenant, then the correspondence immediately follows.
Stillwater Reformed Presbyterian Church