
Originally Posted by
Pergamum
What criteria would you then use to determine the morality of a piece of music?
As I said, I'd take my starting point for myself (since I'm not legislating to others) from its impact on me. It's also as well to point out here that of course you can resist the impact of a piece of music, and when you listen to something critically you often do resist it. So for instance it would be possible for someone at a rave to sit in a corner and sulk - but that's not what the music there is for. The question is not "can this music overpower my guard?" but "what is the effect of surrendering to the music?"

Originally Posted by
Pergamum
Is the wedding march okay? At least for weddings? Wagner's Lohengrin is part of a "pagan" piece written by an Anti-Semite, and for that reason many Jews and many Missouri-Synod Lutherans don't play this piece at weddings due to these connotations. So it appears that a soothing piece can be pagan. I cannot perceive this from the hearing of it though.
I'm not sure I understand your paragraph here but I enjoy Wagner in small doses and with the right performers.
Brahms is superior to many in a musical sense (though he is not one of the greatest composers, so it is also true that many are superior to him). People sometimes have trouble distinguishing between artistic skill and morality, or between terms of artistic evaluation and terms of moral judgment (see Orwell's
Benefit of Clergy). A great artist may be a very evil man, and a very good man may be a worthless artist. A lot of excellent pieces have a drumbeat - Baroque composers like Bach and Handel understood the use of percussion instruments extremely well, as did Beethoven. I suppose the real question comes up, because art that is bad in an artistic sense is often regarded as demoralising, but I'm not sure if that's what you're asking.
Not quite: if we all agree that music has effects on people, then we can look at how piece M affects subject H and render a wise judgment on whether H should listen to M.
You'd have to define what you mean by poor taste. Some people lack social graces, and while this is a real defect it might not be a moral failing. But deliberately offending expectations for no reason is hardly living at peace with all men as much as lies in us. To illustrate, in comparison with other people, I have a deficient palate, because I physically and intensely loathe many flavours that others find delicious. I am not persuaded that this is immoral of me, but it is a defect: Christ, after all, ate fish, while the prospect of a fish dinner seems to me like adequate reason for despair and maybe suicide. I can hardly say that Christ was deficient in liking fish, though, so it must be I who am below par in this regard. So if someone is incapable of enjoying Boccherini, that is sad for them, but not necessarily an indication of depravity.

Originally Posted by
Pergamum
I reject that some musical styles of music are "evil" just due to the beat and not due to any words. I have heard this done many times, usually in relation to "modern Christian music" and its supposed immorality.
If we charge that some musical beats mimic copulation-rythms, then we could counter with the claim that music makes work easier and much work is rythmic and repetitive (tribals often chant while chopping woods, hoeing gardens, etc, and I suppose railroad men might also sing as well, as they worked. The Dwarves whistled while they worked).
I think your rejection and your counter are both a little mistaken. If a beat has a tendency to impact people in a certain way, then the morality of exposing yourself to such an impact is a legitimate question.
Your rejection actually supports your hypothetical opponent's case. Manual labor is often carried out communally, and if people must use their muscles together music is a practical way to co-ordinate them - hence the use of a drum to make oarsmen stroke together, or to help soldiers march in unison. And that makes it clear that some rhythms are helpful to some activities: the phenomenon of mix CDs to "set the mood" should serve as evidence that other rhythms are helpful to other activities. So in acknowledging that some rhythms help people work, you've established the point that rhythms make an impact. It's not a counter - it's additional evidence!

Originally Posted by
Pergamum
On the missions field, we are putting the Gospel into tribal chants, local musical forms and using local instrumentation.
I have had one of my supporters bemoan the fact that pianos were so heavy that they could not easily be transported "over there" - I suppose this supporter's desire was that I should teach "those people" more about "real music" - but I am perfectly content to use the local forms as a fit vessel for the Gospel to be communicated.
Finally, in my experience, many of those advancing theories of music where some forms are moral and other forms are immoral usually are propping up a theory that Western Culture is the pinnacle of advancement and thus their arguments usually find the music of 18th century Christian Europe to by the height of advancement.
Many of the people I've heard propounding theories that some forms are moral and others immoral couldn't recognise good music when it slapped them upside the head, and had an attenuated appreciation of 18th Century Europe. But if you do think that cultures advance and decline, obviously, SOME point has to be the pinnacle so far. In other words, I get the feeling that you think identifying that as a pinnacle is absurd, but I wonder if that isn't because you are uncomfortable with the whole idea of a pinnacle to begin with.
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